If both parents contain a genetic variant for HIV, whats the probability that offspring will develop AIDS?

Only those knowledgeable in the topic answer, please.
If possible, please refer to specific web resources to acquire information.

Thank You :)

Youre right, I probably should have clarified.
What is the probability that the child will develop AIDS if both parents contribute a genetic variant for HIV (unexpressed).

Great response to my confusing question anyways.

HIV is not passed down (in a hereditary sense) from the parents. The only significant possibility is if the mother is infected with HIV and not keeping her viral load under control with meds. Even then, the likelihood that the fetus will contract HIV during gestation or birth is relatively small (10-20%; if the mom's viral load is under good control, the risk is only about 1%) because, as a general rule, the mother's blood doesn't mix with the fetus' blood (unless something is wrong). It's also possible that the newborn will contract HIV from the mother during breastfeeding (although the chances are relatively low if the mother is taking antiviral meds). Sometimes a newborn will be given a course of antivirals (or a single shot) as a *prophylaxis* if the mother was HIV+ and under poor control, but this is controversial and not generally done in the developed world.

So, getting back to your question, the subtype of HIV that the father had (if any), is not directly relevant. If he super-infected the mother (i.e., the mother had one strain and then contracted a second from the father), the mother's chances of being under poor viral load control might be higher (due to possible viral "escape" from the current meds she was on), and that could increase the fetus' or newborn's risk of infection.

Whether or not the newborn develops **AIDS** (which is what you asked specifically), is first a question of whether he/she actually gets infected by the mother, and then a question of how well available meds work on the strain/s he/she got from the mother. That being said, it's true that antiviral medication is frequently less effective in infants and young children than in adults, so the aim is always to control the mother's viral load during gestation and to steer her away from breastfeeding (if that is a practical and safe option in her part of the world) in order to prevent transmission to the baby in the first place.

I know that's a roundabout answer, but there's just no simple answer to your question.