Sex question - contraction of HIV/AIDS through a group of people.

Say there were 10 people. All of them were negative for aids/hiv meaning none of them have aids. If they kept having unprotected sex with eachother (all 10 people mix and match etc) would anyone ever contract aids/hiv? i just thought hiv/aids can only be passed if one partner is positive, so in a situation where nobody is positive would that mean hiv/aids will never occur in this scenario? or does it just somehow develop during intercourse..

if it does take only 1 person to be hiv/aids positive, then it means in this world there was one single person who only ever had aids and that person managed to pass it on to another person and so on...until today which would be pretty bizarre.

If nobody in the group is HIV+, and they all stay within the group, they won't get HIV. However, keep in mind that it can take 3 months after exposure for someone to test positive, and in rare cases even 6 months, so they would have all had to test outside that window period to be sure they were negative.

If nobody in the group has it...and the group stayed as a group...then nobody would get it. If one person had it and slept with everyone...eventually everyone would get it...and not necessarily by the original person. What kind of a question is this...common sense should have answered it for you.

One person can cause hundreds to have HIV. Right not it's mainly spreading through the african american and gay communities which I find very sad. Is our government not doing enough in inner cities to educate people on hiv?

If nobody in the group is HIV, then no one will get

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